New Delhi, July 16: The National Testing Agency (NTA) on Thursday declared the result of the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (Undergraduate), NEET (UG) 2026. The result has been declared in time so that the medical-admission and counselling calendar for candidates stays on track.

A total of close to 20 lakh candidates appeared for NEET (UG) 2026 at 5,440 centres in 551 cities in India and 14 cities abroad. 11.21 lakh candidates have qualified for admission to undergraduate medical, dental, AYUSH and allied programmes.

Scorecards of all candidates are available on the official website, neet.nta.nic.in. The full list of Top Rankers, State Toppers, category-wise toppers (SC, ST, OBC-NCL, Gen-EWS, PwBD and PwD), category-wise cut-off marks and language-wise participation is also being published on the NTA website.

Overview of the Candidates who appeared in NEET UG Exam on 21st June 2026
Close to 20 lakh candidates appeared and 11.21 lakh qualified. Candidates appeared from every State and Union Territory of the country, in 13 languages. More than 58 per cent of the qualified candidates are women. 

According to NTA, the majority of the top-performing candidates are between 17 and 19 years of age.
Profile of the Top Rankers
138 candidates scored above 690 marks out of 720. Of these:
•Over 93 per cent appeared for NEET (UG) for the first time.
•99 per cent are between 17 and 19 years of age.

Geographical Distribution
Qualified candidates have emerged from every one of the 36 States and Union Territories, ranging from over 1.7 lakh in Uttar Pradesh to 43 in Lakshadweep. State Toppers include Jigmet Yangchan Lamo (Ladakh, 530 marks), Dhruv Tripathi (Andaman and Nicobar Islands, 606 marks) and Fahmida Anees (Lakshadweep, 573 marks), and cover every North-Eastern State. 17 State Toppers scored 700 or above; 26 scored above 690.

The 138 top rankers come from 66 cities across the country. The Top 17 rankers who scored more than 705 marks span eight States, namely Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, Tamil Nadu and Telangana.

Score Distribution and Highest Scorers
•19 candidates scored above 700 out of 720.
•1,492 candidates scored 650 and above.
•10,160 candidates scored 600 and above.
•90,780 candidates scored 500 and above.
The highest score of 715 out of 720 was obtained jointly by Aryan Gupta (Punjab) and Panshul Bansal (Haryana).
Category-wise Qualified Candidates
Registered, appeared and qualified figures are being published in full for General, Gen-EWS, OBC-NCL, SC, ST, PwBD, PwD and Third Gender candidates. Separate topper lists for each category are provided in the accompanying toppers document.

Category-wise qualified candidates:
•General: 2.91 lakh
•OBC-NCL: 5.12 lakh
•SC: 1.59 lakh
•ST: 63,716
•Gen-EWS: 95,026
•PwBD: 3,666
•PwD: 303
Category-wise cut-off marks and percentiles are being published simultaneously.

Participation and Qualification of Women Candidates
More than 58 per cent of all qualified candidates are women. Women also qualified at a higher rate than men: 56.8 per cent of women who appeared qualified, as against 55.1 per cent of men.
Languages of the Examination
NEET (UG) 2026 was conducted in 13 languages: Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu and English.

Process and Timeline of Result Declaration
The result was declared within time through re-engineering of the process, with stages designed to run in parallel rather than in sequence, and with the de-linking of OMR sheet challenge from answer key release. Each stage was completed in full and made available for candidate view:
•Provisional answer key published on 25 June 2026; challenge window open from 25 to 28 June 2026.
•Scanned OMR answer sheets and recorded responses displayed to candidates from 13 to 15 July 2026.
•Final answer key published on 16 July 2026; result declared on 16 July 2026.

Statutory Framework NTA conducts NEET (UG) under Section 14 of the NMC Act, 2019 and Section 14 of the NCISM Act, 2020, and for BHMS under the NCH, on the direction of the Hon’ble Supreme Court and with the approval of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Ministry of Education.
NTA’s mandate is to conduct the examination, declare the result on eligibility criteria provided by NMC, and issue the All-India Rank. Merit lists, category lists, domicile determination and counselling are the remit of the admitting/State authorities. NTA has no role in these.
NEET (UG) result data is also used for admission to B.Sc. (H) Nursing and to BVSc and AH under the 15% VCI quota. AACCC is the counselling authority for the All-India Quota in BAMS/BUMS/BSMS and BHMS.

Counselling and Candidate Advisory
Counselling for the All-India Quota in MBBS/BDS is conducted by the Medical Counselling Committee (MCC). State quotas are conducted by respective State authorities. Candidates should rely only on official websites: neet.nta.nic.in, mcc.nic.in and State counselling portals.
Candidates are cautioned against fraudulent calls, messages or websites offering admission, seat blocking or score improvement. NTA does not contact candidates seeking money or credentials. Suspicious communication may be reported at [email protected] or 011-40759000.

New Delhi, Jul 16: The Supreme Court on Thursday directed all states and Union territories to formulate and notify a policy within three months for early or premature release of prisoners who are of advanced age or are terminally ill.

A bench of Justices Vikram Nath and Sandeep Mehta said the policy should clearly define the eligibility criteria and procedural framework for consideration of release and in particular, it should expressly provide a clear and uniform definition of “terminal illness”.

The bench delivered its verdict on a plea by the National Legal Services Authority raising grave and systemic concerns regarding continued incarceration of convicted prisoners who are of advanced age (above 70 years) or are terminally ill.

It also asked the Centre to provide all necessary support to states and UTs to facilitate effective compliance with its directions.

“All states and Union Territories shall, within a period of three months from the date of this judgment, formulate and notify a comprehensive policy for early or premature release of prisoners who are of advanced age and/or are terminally ill,” it said.

It noted that under the doctrine of separation of powers, court cannot assume the role of a legislature or embark upon law-making in areas expressly reserved for the elected branches of government.

“Judicial directions cannot transgress into the realm of legislative policy or supplant statutory frameworks, particularly in matters where the Constitution vests primary competence in the States,” the bench said.

It said role of the apex court is not to legislate, but to interpret, enforce and give meaningful effect to constitutional guarantees, while remaining mindful of the limits of institutional authority and judicial restraint.

“However, constitutional restraint cannot be equated with constitutional abdication. Where legislative or executive inaction results in persistent or systemic violations of fundamental rights, this court cannot remain a passive spectator,” the bench said.

“In such circumstances, constitutional adjudication cannot retreat into silence, and this court is duty-bound to issue appropriate directions to ensure that existing

constitutional and statutory frameworks are effectively implemented and that the guarantees under Article 21 of the Constitution of India do not remain merely formal or illusory,” it said.

The bench noted that punishment must remain anchored in proportionality, humanity and the possibility of reform, and that incarceration cannot be permitted to degenerate into institutional neglect incompatible with the values of a constitutional democracy.

Exercising its powers, including under Article 142 of the Constitution, the bench said the policy be framed in consultation with the respective State Legal Services Authorities so as to ensure institutional coordination and effective identification of eligible prisoners.

Regarding uniform definition of “terminal illness”, the bench said for this purpose, the states and UTs may adopt, with such modifications as deemed appropriate, the definition contained in UNODC Handbook on Prisoners with Special Needs (2009).

It noted that definition in the handbook describes terminal illness as “a condition where there is no reasonable medical possibility that the patient’s condition will not continue to degenerate and result in death”.

The bench said the policy should mandate constitution of independent medical boards at the divisional and state levels for objective medical assessment and certification of terminal illness or advanced medical vulnerability.

It said the policy should prescribe a time-bound and accessible procedure for submission, examination and disposal of applications for early or compassionate release.

“Procedural delays which result in prisoners spending their final months or years under incarceration shall be avoided, and all decisions shall be reasoned and subject to judicial review,” it said.

The bench observed the manner in which a constitutional democracy treats those who find themselves in positions of heightened vulnerability within its institutional framework is often the clearest reflection of its commitment to the rule of law and human dignity.

It said prisons are not spaces where constitutional values are suspended.

“The guarantees of dignity, fairness and humane treatment continue to operate with full force even behind prison walls, where the power of the State is exercised in its most intrusive form and the vulnerability of individuals is at its highest,” the bench said.

It noted that according to the Prison Statistics India Report, 2022, published by the National Crime Records Bureau, as on December 31, 2022, there were a total of 1,33,415 convicted prisoners in India.

The bench noted that out of them, 27,690 convicts, constituting approximately 20.8 per cent, were aged 50 years and above.

It asked the Centre to provide all necessary support to states and UTs to facilitate effective compliance with its directions.

The bench also asked the Centre, all states and UTs to file compliance affidavits before it within six months.

It said the compliance affidavits should also indicate the status of formulation and implementation of policy, including data regarding the number of prisoners identified, released, and those presently under consideration.

“The directions issued hereinabove are intended to give meaningful effect to the constitutional guarantee of life with dignity and to ensure that the criminal justice system does not inflict needless suffering upon those whose vulnerability is manifest and irreversible,” the bench said, while posting the matter for January 17.

New Delhi, Jul 16: A Delhi court on Thursday allowed jailed Lok Sabha MP Engineer Rashid to attend the Monsoon session of Parliament in custody on all dates.

Special Judge (NIA) Prashant Sharma was hearing the plea filed by Rashid seeking custody parole to attend the upcoming parliamentary session scheduled from July 20 to August 13 and allowed the plea.

Custody parole entails a prisoner being escorted by armed police personnel to his place of visit.

The court conducted the proceedings in camera.

Rashid was arrested for allegedly funding separatists and terror groups in Jammu and Kashmir. He has been lodged in Delhi’s Tihar Jail since 2019 after the NIA arrested him in the 2017 terror-funding case.

After being named in a chargesheet in October 2019, a special NIA court framed charges against Rashid and others in March 2022 under sections 120B (criminal conspiracy), 121 (waging war against the government) and 124A (sedition) of the Indian Penal Code and for offences relating to terrorist acts and terror funding under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act.